Comments on: Plot Structure and Macbeth’s Climax

By: key west scuba

key west scuba — Tue, 22 Jun 2010 08:04:24 +0000

The new Zune browser is surprisingly good, but not as good as the iPod’s. It works well, but isn’t as fast as Safari, and has a clunkier interface. If you occasionally plan on using the web browser that’s not an issue, but if you’re planning to browse the web alot from your PMP then the iPod’s larger screen and better browser may be important.

By: Tucker

Tucker — Wed, 26 May 2010 23:57:40 +0000

Yaaa, the climax is most definatly not duncans murder, certainly YOU know better than that. I think shakespear got it right.

By: Sonnet116Shakes

Sonnet116Shakes — Sun, 07 Feb 2010 04:46:23 +0000

Even though you can’t see something does not mean that you do not believe that it has happened! correct!? If you use this statement and apply it, you can realize that the climax can surely be the murder of Duncan. Even though the murder is not shown, it is clearly inferred that it has happened.

Also, if you do look up the definition of the climax, it will state that it always occurs before the falling action; which is a parallel of the characters downfall. As shown in many literary works: the plot sequence is exposition, rising action, CLIMAX, falling action and then conclusion. I also wish I could watch a production of Macbeth!! But wouldn’t the audience be more rallied up at the first murder because it is so original, rather than the third, hackneyed one..

By: Gedaly

Gedaly — Tue, 02 Feb 2010 03:43:30 +0000

A character’s downfall isn’t always parallel with the falling action. Oedipus’ downfall, you could say, begins when he murders the old man. That happens early on and it’s all downhill for him from there, but it’s not the climax. Downhill in the sense that things get worse, but the worse things are, the more drama there is. At the point of the most drama — near the end, that is where the climax occurs.

Duncan’s death isn’t even shown onstage. Why would the climax take place onstage? Watch a really good production. I guarantee that your heart will be pounding a lot faster at the end than when the first murder is committed.

By: Sonnet116Shakes

Sonnet116Shakes — Sat, 30 Jan 2010 02:53:23 +0000

How would the end be the highest charged part of the play, when in reality it is part of the falling action; it is the epitome of Macbeth’s downfall from his killing of Duncan.

By: Gedaly

Gedaly — Wed, 13 Jan 2010 02:50:57 +0000

Sure, the killings of Duncan, Banquo, and MacDuff’s family are climactic moments, but the climax refers to the highest charged part of the play, which I believe is at the end.

By: Sonnet116Shakes

Sonnet116Shakes — Tue, 12 Jan 2010 22:40:36 +0000

Honestly, doesn’t it seem a little peculiar to you that the climax would be at the end of the play, as you have stated. If you look on multiple websites, they show you that the first climax is the demise of Duncan and the second is the killing of Banquo. In my opinion, it is the killing of Duncan; but from my teacher’s viewpoint it is the killing of Banquo(which I am guessing is the correct one).But, either way, it is irrevelant that the climax would be the fight at the END of the play!

By: Ryan

Ryan — Thu, 01 Oct 2009 20:55:12 +0000

What do you think the climax of the play is? I think it is Act III, Scene 4.

By: Carnival of Education - 202nd Edition | Steve Spangler's Blog

Carnival of Education - 202nd Edition | Steve Spangler's Blog — Wed, 17 Dec 2008 05:27:01 +0000

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