Plot Structure and Macbeth’s Climax
SparkNotes is a source for information used by students of all ages, teachers too! Generally teachers don’t encourage students to use SparkNotes, Cliff’s Notes, etc. since these resources are most often used in place of reading the text rather than a guide to be used in addition to the text. This is a big company devoted to helping people understand literature better, so think of my surprise when a friend pointed out that their facts are a little screwy.
A friend brought to my attention that their facts page has the climax of the story in an unexpected place. The plot structure listings are odd to me. What do you think?
RISING ACTION · Macbeth and Banquo’s encounter with the witches initiates both conflicts; Lady Macbeth’s speeches goad Macbeth into murdering Duncan and seizing the crown.
CLIMAX · Macbeth’s murder of Duncan in Act II represents the point of no return, after which Macbeth is forced to continue butchering his subjects to avoid the consequences of his crime.
FALLING ACTION · Macbeth’s increasingly brutal murders (of Duncan’s servants, Banquo, Lady Macduff and her son); Macbeth’s second meeting with the witches; Macbeth’s final confrontation with Macduff and the opposing armies
So the climax of the play is in Act II… and then there are three acts of falling action? Shakespeare knew better than that!
A simplistic way to look at the plot structure in a tragedy is that the protagonist gets closer and closer to their objective as the story progresses until the climax (in a comedy the protagonist gets pushed further away from their goal until the climax). By that model, the climax of Macbeth is the fight between Macduff and the Scottish King.
And I don’t think that “Macbeth is forced to continue butchering his subjects to avoid the consequences of his crime” at all. He continues murdering so that he can ensure his royal position, not primarily to avoid the consequences of his first murder.
I sent an message about this by clicking on the “Report an Error” link at the bottom of the Macbeth facts page. You should too! We don’t want faulty information on such a widely used resource.
So, Sparknotes, please fix this! Mr. Shakespeare was not silly enough to have a play with over half of it as falling action.
Remember to keep your eye out for things like this. You can’t always trust what’s published online or even in print.
Student’s essays on this play will be a little different from now on, won’t they?
Posted on December 11, 2008
Ryan Oct 1, 2009
What do you think the climax of the play is? I think it is Act III, Scene 4.
Sonnet116Shakes Jan 12, 2010
Honestly, doesn’t it seem a little peculiar to you that the climax would be at the end of the play, as you have stated. If you look on multiple websites, they show you that the first climax is the demise of Duncan and the second is the killing of Banquo. In my opinion, it is the killing of Duncan; but from my teacher’s viewpoint it is the killing of Banquo(which I am guessing is the correct one).But, either way, it is irrevelant that the climax would be the fight at the END of the play!
Gedaly Jan 12, 2010
Sure, the killings of Duncan, Banquo, and MacDuff’s family are climactic moments, but the climax refers to the highest charged part of the play, which I believe is at the end.
Sonnet116Shakes Jan 29, 2010
How would the end be the highest charged part of the play, when in reality it is part of the falling action; it is the epitome of Macbeth’s downfall from his killing of Duncan.
Gedaly Feb 1, 2010
A character’s downfall isn’t always parallel with the falling action. Oedipus’ downfall, you could say, begins when he murders the old man. That happens early on and it’s all downhill for him from there, but it’s not the climax. Downhill in the sense that things get worse, but the worse things are, the more drama there is. At the point of the most drama — near the end, that is where the climax occurs.
Duncan’s death isn’t even shown onstage. Why would the climax take place onstage? Watch a really good production. I guarantee that your heart will be pounding a lot faster at the end than when the first murder is committed.
Sonnet116Shakes Feb 6, 2010
Even though you can’t see something does not mean that you do not believe that it has happened! correct!? If you use this statement and apply it, you can realize that the climax can surely be the murder of Duncan. Even though the murder is not shown, it is clearly inferred that it has happened.
Also, if you do look up the definition of the climax, it will state that it always occurs before the falling action; which is a parallel of the characters downfall. As shown in many literary works: the plot sequence is exposition, rising action, CLIMAX, falling action and then conclusion. I also wish I could watch a production of Macbeth!! But wouldn’t the audience be more rallied up at the first murder because it is so original, rather than the third, hackneyed one..
Tucker May 26, 2010
Yaaa, the climax is most definatly not duncans murder, certainly YOU know better than that. I think shakespear got it right.
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